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PostSeparatism in Spain and France (Timothy Brown, USA, 10/17/19 4:15 am)
I'm curious. It's my understanding that Spain did not become a full-fledged union until the 15th century, when it became a union of different principalities. Several of them had then, and still have, recognized native languages other than Spanish, Catalan and Basque being two of them.
Catalan and Basque are also the primary languages of prefectures of France, Basque on the Atlantic and Catalan on the Mediterranean. Today Spain has had serious independence movements in both but France has not. Why the difference?
JE comments: I always blamed (credited?) Napoleon for this, and the aggressive centralization of the Imperial era. Franco sought to do the same thing in Spain, but he came 140 years later. Doesn't Spain also grant more political autonomy to its diverse regions?
Still, Tim Brown raises an important question: why are there no significant Roussillonnais or Pays-Basque separatist movements? It may be significant that France has no major city in either region, unlike Barcelona, Bilbao or San Sebastián/Donostia.
The events in Catalonia will take the front and center position today on WAIS. First, we'll hear from Barbara Molas.